Would 277 volts be better, or is that approaching the risk of damaging something because of the extra voltage.
If I lose 20% of the power going from 50-60, would I want to compensate by adding 20% to the voltage?
240*1.2=288 would be the "ideal" voltage.
Or is there something conceptual I'm not getting?
The extra voltage may damage just the power factor capacitor, if that would remain there. As it will overcompensate the circuit, the one rated for 50Hz is anyway unusable.
For the coil, the main factor is the operating temperature and current (how close it is towards the saturation). As we want to reach exactly the same current as with the original 240V/50Hz setup and still are below the target, there won't be any problem.
The ignitor sees just the arc voltage and that is 100% given by the lamp, so no difference from the original setup at all.
For the voltage calculation you are really very close:
What get's multiplied by the "60/50" factor is the voltage across the inductive component of the ballast.
The mains is a vector sum of the inductive, resistive (losses) and lamp voltages. As the resistive and lamp voltages are in phase and the inductive 90deg phase shifted, a Pythagoras equation works there:
Vmains^2 = Vind^2 + (Rlosses*Iballast + Vlamp)^2.
The inductive part could be then stated like:
Vind = Iballast*L*2*Pi()*Freq
The ballast losses are (just an estimate based on similar current fluorescent ballasts; it does not play that much role) 10W, so the related voltage drop is about 30V.
The lamp arc voltage is about:
Vlamp = Plamp / Iballast / 0.9
The 0.9 is the power factor of the lamp: It is fed by a sinewave, but the voltage is rectangular. The resulting power factor of the shape mismatch is about 0.9. So the voltage drop for the 18W is about 56V
Now these equation are valid for any supply yielding the rated Iballast current (on other currents the L may change due to magnetic nonlinearity). As this is where we aim for, you may form that into a set of two equations, one for 50Hz and second for 60Hz:
240^2 = (0.36A*L*6.28*50Hz)^2 + (30 + 56)^2
Vwanted^2 = (0.36A*L*6.28*60Hz)^2 + (30 + 56)^2
Now if you will play a bit with the "lamp" and "losses" voltages, you will find out the thing is pretty insensitive to these (if they stay below half of the mains). Putting zero there then leads your equation and even with that is not that far (282 vs yours 288V).
So an naswer to the original voltage question: Yes, the 277V is the voltage closest to the calculated one (from the numbers you said are available for you)...
So if you have that, just try it out.
Measure the lamp arc current and after a while check the ballast temperature.
For the temperature you may measure just the winding resistance when it is cold and then just after shutting it down and calculate the temperature from the resistance change - there is just copper and nothing else. It may not look so, but this method is actually more accurate in estimating the temperature inside of the winding (that is, what matter for the ballast reliability) than measuring the surface temperature. Just don't forget to disconnect the thing from mains before connecting the Ohm-meter.
If you have some IR thermometer or so, you may monitor the temperature while the ballast is running.
The expected temperature difference when on free air is printed on the ballast ("dtXXX" means the expected difference is XXX degC), so compare the measurement on bench with that figure. It should not be higher. Then when installed, the ballast should not exceed a temperature marked as "twXXX". These rated values are to be measured on the ballast top (iron body, where it does not touches the eventual heat sink or so).